Salesforce certified Platform Developer 1- Summer 16 Maintenance Questions

1. Which action should be taken to allow an external object to be searchable via SOQL?

A. Enable the “Is Searchable” checkbox on the object.
B. Use the Search.QueryExternal() method.
C. Request a custom index from Salesforce Support.
D. Enable the “Allow Search” checkbox on the object.

2. Which three Metadata Components can be deployed via change sets?
(Choose 3 Answers)

A. Lightning Application.
B. Lightning Component.
C. Wave Dashboard.
D. Global Picklist.
E. Wave Application.

3. Which two features can be used to prevent values from being selected in a picklist?
(Choose 2 Answers)

A. Validation Rules.
B. Validated Picklists.
C. Workflow Rules.
D. Restricted Picklists.
E. Filtered Picklists.


4. In which two Locations can you select and run an Apex Test in a Lightning Experience?
(Choose 2 Answers)

A. Apex Test History Page in Setup.
B. Testing API Page in Setup.
C. Apex Test Execution page in Setup.
D. Test menu in the Developer Console.
E. Apex Hammer Execution Status page in setup.

5. Which object can be queried with SOQL?

A. Lightning Component.
B. Dashboard Schedule.
C. Dashboard Refresh.
D. Dashboard Component.

Admin summer 16 Maintenence

1. what are two capabilities of chatter Questions? choose 2 answers
A. Create cases from questions in chatter.
B. View a list of questions in questions tab.
C. Receive alerts when answers are posted.
D. Incorporate chatter questions into self service communities.

2. what feature gives an administrator a one page view of how well the org meets salesforce security standards?
A. Health monitor.
B. Standards Report.
C. Health check
D. Security Monitor.

3. what is a capability of sharing settings for files attached to records in salesforce classic?
A. Access can be set to set by record
B. Access can be set to viewer only
C. Access can be set to edit only
D. Access can be set to Read only

4. when an identity verification method is added to a user's account what confirms this action?
A. User is awarded a badge.
B. User is assigned a task
C. User gets an email
D. User receives on screen prompt.

5. sales representatives at universal containers require approval for large discounts on opportunities and sales management to automate the submission once the opportunity reaches the "negotiation" stage. what two features can an administrator use to meet this requirement? choose 2 answers
A. approvals.
B. Process Builder
C. Visual Workflow.
D. Workflow

6. what are two capabilities of process builder? choose 2 answers
A. Calling apex code.
B. sending outbound messages.
C. Single if/then statement.
D. Multiple if/ then statements

7. what action can the recipient of a shared note perform in lightning experience and salesforce classic?
A. Edit note
B. Delete note.
C. Create note.
D. View note.

8. when an answer is posted in chatter questions. what two personas can select the best answer for a question? choose 2 answers
A. Members of the group or community where the question was posted.
B. Moderator.
C. Subject matter experts
D. Person who asked the question

9. which two permissions need to be assigned for a user to view and edit information on the Health check page in setup? choose 2 answers
A. View Setup and Configuration
B. Customize Application
C. Modify All Data
D. View all Data

10. what is true about how process builder executes actions?
A. Processes can execute actions using undefined criteria.
B. Processes can execute actions on more than one criteria.
C. Processes can execute actions based on only one criteria.
D. Processes can execute actions when the action group contains scheduled actions

AWS Solution Architect -Professional

1.You currently operate a web application in the AWS US-East region. The application runs on an auto- scaled layer of EC2 instances and an RDS Multi-AZ database. Your IT security compliance officer has tasked you to develop a reliable and durable logging solution to track changes made to your EC2, IAM, and RDS resources. The solution must ensure the integrity and confidentiality of your log data. Which of these solutions would you recommend?

A. Create a new CloudTrail trail with one new S3 bucket to store the logs. Configure SNS to send log file delivery notifications to your management system. Use IAM roles and S3 bucket policies on the S3 bucket that stores your logs.

B. Create a new CloudTrail trail with an existing S3 bucket to store the logs and with the global services option selected. Use S3 ACLs and Multi Factor Authentication (MFA) Delete on the S3 bucket that stores your logs.

C. Create a new CloudTrail trail with one new S3 bucket to store the logs and with the global services option selected. Use IAM roles, S3 bucket policies, and Multi Factor Authentication (MFA) Delete on the S3 bucket that stores your logs.

D. Create three new CloudTrail trails with three new S3 buckets to store the logs: one for the AWS Management Console, one for AWS SDKs, and one for command line tools. Use 1AM roles and S3 bucket policies on the S3 buckets that store your logs.

2.You have an application running on an EC2 instance which will allow users to download files from a private S3 bucket using a pre-signed URL. Before generating the URL, the application should verify the existence of the file in S3. How should the application use AWS credentials to access the S3 bucket securely?

A. Use the AWS account access keys; the application retrieves the credentials from the source code of the application.

B. Create an IAM role for EC2 that allows list access to objects In the S3 bucket; launch the Instance with the role, and retrieve the role's credentials from the EC2 instance metadata.

C. Create an IAM user for the application with permissions that allow list access to the S3 bucket; the application retrieves the 1AM user credentials from a temporary directory with permissions that allow read access only to the Application user.

D. Create an IAM user for the application with permissions that allow list access to the S3 bucket; launch the instance as the IAM user, and retrieve the IAM user's credentials from the EC2 instance user data.

3.A customer has a 10 GB AWS Direct Connect connection to an AWS region where they have a web application hosted on Amazon Elastic Computer Cloud (EC2). The application has dependencies on an on-premises mainframe database that uses a BASE (Baste Available, Soft state, Eventual consistency) rather than an ACID (Atomicity, Consistency, Isolation, Durability) consistency model. The application is exhibiting undesirable behavior because the database is not able to handle the volume of writes. How can you reduce the load on your on-premises database resources in the most cost-effective way?

A. Provision an RDS read-replica database on AWS to handle the writes and synchronize the two databases using Data Pipeline.

B. Modify the application to use DynamoDB to feed an EMR cluster which uses a map function to write to the on-premises database.

C. Modify the application to write to an Amazon SQS queue and develop a worker process to flush the queue to the on-premises database.

D. Use an Amazon Elastic Map Reduce (EMR) S3DistCp as a synchronization mechanism between the on- premises database and a Hadoop cluster on AWS.

4.Your company plans to host a large donation website on Amazon Web Services (AWS). You anticipate a large and undetermined amount of traffic that will create many database writes. To be certain that you do not drop any writes to a database hosted on AWS, which service should you use?

A. Amazon Simple Queue Service (SQS) for capturing the writes and draining the queue to write to the database.

B. Amazon DynamoDB with provisioned write throughput up to the anticipated peak write throughput.

C. Amazon ElastiCache to store the writes until the writes are committed to the database.

D. Amazon RDS with provisioned IOPS up to the anticipated peak write throughput.

AWS Solution Architect -Associate

1. You have a video transcoding application running on Amazon EC2. Each instance polls a queue to find out which video should be transcoded, and then runs a transcoding process.If this process is interrupted, the video will be transcoded by another instance based on the queuing system. You have a large backlog of videos which need to be transcoded and would like to reduce this backlog by adding more instances. You will need these instancesonly until the backlog is reduced. Which type of Amazon EC2 instances should you use to reduce the backlog in the most cost efficient way?

A. Reserved instances

B. Spot instances

C. Dedicated instances

D. On-demand instances

2. You have an application running on an Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud instance, that

uploads 5 GB video objects to Amazon Simple Storage Service (S3). Video uploads are

taking longer than expected, resulting in poor application performance. Which method will help improve performance of your application?

A. Enable enhanced networking

B. Use Amazon S3 multipart upload

C. Leveraging Amazon CloudFront, use the HTTP POST method to reduce latency.

D. Use Amazon Elastic Block Store Provisioned IOPs and use an Amazon EBS-optimized instance

3. When an EC2 instance that is backed by an S3-based AMI is terminated, what happens to the data on the root volume?

A. Data is automatically saved as an EBS snapshot.

B. Data is automatically saved as an EBS volume.

C. Data is unavailable until the instance is restarted.

D. Data is automatically deleted.

4. You run an ad-supported photo sharing website using S3 to serve photos to visitors of your site. At some point you find out that other sites have been linking to the photos on your site, causing loss to your business. What is an effective method to mitigate this?

A. Remove public read access and use signed URLs with expiry dates.

B. Use CloudFront distributions for static content.

C. Block the IPs of the offending websites in Security Groups.

D. Store photos on an EBS volume of the web server.

5. Which of the following are true regarding encrypted Amazon Elastic Block Store (EBS) volumes? Choose 2 answers

A. Supported on all Amazon EBS volume types

B. Snapshots are automatically encrypted

C. Available to all instance types

D. Existing volumes can be encrypted

E. shared volumes can be encrypted

Salesforce certified Platform Developer 1 - Winter 16 maintenence questions

Salesforce certified Platform Developer 1 - Winter 16 maintenence

1. What is a junction object?
1. A custom object with one lookup relationship and one master-detail relationship.
2. A custom object with two lookup relationships.
3. A custom object with any number of lookup and master-detail relationships.
4. A custom object with two master-detail relationships.
2. What is the name of the standard relationship from Account down to Contact?
1. Contacts
2. Contact
3. Accounts
4. Account
3. When running an Apex test, which type of Apex syntax in tested code is counted in the code coverage calculation?
1. A variable assignment.
2. A blank line.
3. A System.debug() statement.
4. A comment.
4. Which method is defined in the StandardController class? Choose 2 answers
1. Undelete
2. Merge
3. Cancel
4. Save
5. What is the return type of a SOSL search?
1. A list of sObjects.
2. A list of AggregateResults.
3. A list of lists of sObjects.
4. An sObject.

Platform Developer 1 Spring 16 Maintenance Exam

1. what are the supported content sources for custom buttons and links? choose 2

A. Lightning page.

B. Chatter File.

C. Static Resource.

D. URL

E. Visualforce page

2. what actions types should be configured to display a custom success message?

A. Delete a record.

B. Update a record.

C. Close a case.

D. Post a feed item.

3.what features are available when writing apex test classes? choose 2

A. The ability to select testing data using csv files stored in the system.

B. The ability to set and modify the Created Date  field in apex tests.

C. The ability to write assertions to test after an @future method.

D. The ability to set breakpoints to freeze the execution at a given point.

E. The ability to select error types to ignore in the developer console

4. what is the optimal way to verify a user before showing them sensitive content?

A. Calling the session.forceLoginUrl method in apex.

B. Sending the user an email message with a passcode.

C. sending the user a SMS message with a passcode.

D. Calling the generate VerificationUrl method in apex

5.when creating a record with a Quick Action, what is the optimal way to post a feed item?

A. By selecting create feed item on the quick action.

B. By adding a trigger on the new record.

C. By selecting the action type of feed item.

D. By adding a workflow rule on the new record

App Builder Spring 16 Maintenance Exam

1. what's the best way for Universal Containers  technicians to manage service requests in the contact center and also while out in the field?

A. work Order.

B. Service Contract.

C. Field Service.

D. Service Request.

2. Field sales reps at universal containers would like to see key fields at a glance when they view opportunities on their mobile devices.

what feature can a accomplish this?

A. Page layout.

B. Compact Layout.

C. Quick Actions.

D. Expanded Lookups.

3.which statement is correct about lightning Experience and salesforce Classic? choose3

A. Lightning Experience is an app-centric application model,while salesforce classic is a page-centic application model.

B. Lightning Experience is a new, modern user experience,while salesforce classic is the default user experience.

C. Lightning Experience displays a vertical navigation menu, while salesforce classic displays tabs across the top.

D. Lightning Experience will unveil new features with each new release but, salesforce classic will not

E.  Lightning experience is optimized for the mobile platform,while salesforce classic is best for desktop

4. where is the person Accounts feature available?

A. Salesforce classic only.

B.  Salesforce Classic and Lightning Experience.

C. Salesforce Classic and Lightning Experience(BETA)

D. Lightning Experience Only.

5. where can a manage reports and dashboards?

A. Report and dashboard sharing settings can be be managed in lightning and classic.

B. . Report and dashboard sharing settings can only be managed in Classic.

C. . Report and dashboard sharing settings can only be managed in salesforce1.

D. . Report and dashboard sharing settings can only be managed in lightning.

6. what is a correct statement about Salesforce for Outlook?choose2

A. It operates in both the lightning Experience and salesforce Classic.

B. It is installed on the exchange server.

C. It is installed on the user's machine.

D. It is a cloud- based integration between Exchange and salesforce.

7. sales teams at universal Containers would like to minimize the number of fields that they see when they are creating an of opportunity while using salesforce1.the admin has created a custom on the account, but the sales users do not see it when they log in to salesforce1.

what is the reason?

A. The custom action has not been set to active on the account.

B. The custom action has not been added to the salesforce1 navigation.

C. The custom action has not been assigned to the user profile.

D. The custom action has not been added to the appropriate page layout.

8. where can a user view lightning Experience charts? choose 3

A. Salesforce1

B. Lightning App Builder

C. Visualforce pages.

D. Lightning process Builder

E. Reports and Dashboards.

 Dev Spring 16 Maintenence Exam

1. what is true about the file sharing " Set by Record?"

A. It is used to infer sharing via the parent record.

B. It is used to infer sharing via the record type.

C. It is used to infer sharing via the associated record.

D. It is used to infer sharing via the record owner

2.which standard field can be updated using formula rules in process builder?

A. Deleted.

B. Created Date.

C. Owner Id

D. ID

3. what must be true when accessing a user's private report and dashboards? choose 2

A. Using the "allPrivate" with the "Where" condition in a SOQL query.

B. Having the "Manage All Private Reports and Dashboards" permission.

C. Using the "allPrivate" with the "scope" condition in a  SOQL query.

D. Having the "administrator Access to Private Files" Permission.

4.what is true about Data loader? choose 3

A. It can be used with SAML Authentication.

B. It can be used with OAuth Authentication.

C. It can be used with password Authentication.

D. It can be used with both Mac and PC

E. It can be used with only a PC

5. which Quick Actions Can Contain a "Custom Success Message?' choose2

A. Update a Record.

B. Log a Call

C. Visit a website.
D. Send an Email

ADM Spring 16 Maintenance Exam

1. what key user access data is included in login forensics?

A. who logged in more than the average number of times.

B. who logged in during business hours.

C. who logged in more than the number set in the profile.

D. who logged in from a new browser more than once in a day.

2.what does the customize Application permission setting allow?

A. To modify custom picklist values.

B. To create a new user.

C. To create article types.

D. to edit contract settings.

3. which area are calculated for the Health check score? choose 2

A. Session settings.

B. Profile and permissions assigned.

C. Password Policy.

D. Login attempts.

E. Number of users.

4.what is true regarding the new Data Loader?

A. It works with all legacy security protocol.

B. It has a new column flagging duplicate files.

C. It supports Web Server OAuth Authentication for windows or Mac.

D. It has downloadable and-ons published through the AppExchange.

5.what object types is work order object associated with? choose 2

A. Service Contracts.

B. Products.

C. Cases.

D. Milestones

E. Leads

ADM Winter 16 Maintenance Exam

1. Describe an enhancement to chatter posts. choose 3 answers

A. A user can view a list of people who have muted the same post.

B. A user can format a chatter post using the rich text editor.

C. A user can mute a post so that it no longer appears on their chatter feed.

D. A user can view a post they have muted from the muted filter.

E. A user can mute all future posts from a specific user in a group

2. what is an enhancement to Salesforce files? choose 2 answers

A. A file owner can freeze a file to prevent additional shares of the file.

B. A user can upload files from the files related list on standard objects only.

C. An administrator can control whether users can upload files from their computer.

D. an administrator can control whether users can upload files from salesforce

3. What is an enhancement to working with records in chatter groups? choose 2 answers

A. when a record is @mentioned on a group, that record becomes a group record.

B. Group records are visible to all members of that group.

C. Group records are displayed in the groups related lists.

D. when a group is @mentioned on a record, that record becomes a group record.

4. By default, which users have access to lightning experience once it has been enabled?

A. All users in the salesforce organization.

B. only users with the system administrator profile

C. All users with standard salesforce profiles

D. Only users with the sales user permission

5. In a salesforce organization using state and country picklists, what feature allows a lightning expeneces user to choose the correct address when entering information in a standard address fields?

A.Lookups for standard address fields.

B. contact lookup for address fields on custom objects.

C. Auto-completion for standard address fields

D. Auto-completion for Custom address fields

6. what is an enhancement to process Builder? choose 2 answers

A. Process criteria can be evaluated at a specific time of day.

B. More than one schedule can be enabled for a single action.

C. Administrators receive a fault email when a process fails due to user inactivity.

D. Administrators receive an email when a process completes sucessfully

Dev Winter 16 Maintenance Exam

1. what is an enhancement to Salesforce files? choose 2 answers

A. A file owner can freeze a file to prevent additional shares of the file.

B. A user can upload files from the files related list on standard objects only.

C. An administrator can control whether users can upload files from their computer.

D. an administrator can control whether users can upload files from salesforce

2. What is an enhancement to working with records in chatter groups? choose 2 answers

A. when a record is @mentioned on a group, that record becomes a group record.

B. Group records are visible to all members of that group.

C. Group records are displayed in the groups related lists.

D. when a group is @mentioned on a record, that record becomes a group record.

3. By default, which users have access to lightning experience once it has been enabled?

A. All users in the salesforce organization.

B. only users with the system administrator profile

C. All users with standard salesforce profiles

D. Only users with the sales user permission

4. In a salesforce organization using state and country picklists, what feature allows a lightning expeneces user to choose the correct address when entering information in a standard address fields?

A.Lookups for standard address fields.

B. contact lookup for address fields on custom objects.

C. Auto-completion for standard address fields

D. Auto-completion for Custom address fields

5. what is an enhancement to process Builder? choose 2 answers

A. Process criteria can be evaluated at a specific time of day.

B. More than one schedule can be enabled for a single action.

C. Administrators receive a fault email when a process fails due to user inactivity.

D. Administrators receive an email when a process completes sucessfully