Admin summer 16 Maintenence

1. what are two capabilities of chatter Questions? choose 2 answers
A. Create cases from questions in chatter.
B. View a list of questions in questions tab.
C. Receive alerts when answers are posted.
D. Incorporate chatter questions into self service communities.

2. what feature gives an administrator a one page view of how well the org meets salesforce security standards?
A. Health monitor.
B. Standards Report.
C. Health check
D. Security Monitor.

3. what is a capability of sharing settings for files attached to records in salesforce classic?
A. Access can be set to set by record
B. Access can be set to viewer only
C. Access can be set to edit only
D. Access can be set to Read only

4. when an identity verification method is added to a user's account what confirms this action?
A. User is awarded a badge.
B. User is assigned a task
C. User gets an email
D. User receives on screen prompt.

5. sales representatives at universal containers require approval for large discounts on opportunities and sales management to automate the submission once the opportunity reaches the "negotiation" stage. what two features can an administrator use to meet this requirement? choose 2 answers
A. approvals.
B. Process Builder
C. Visual Workflow.
D. Workflow

6. what are two capabilities of process builder? choose 2 answers
A. Calling apex code.
B. sending outbound messages.
C. Single if/then statement.
D. Multiple if/ then statements

7. what action can the recipient of a shared note perform in lightning experience and salesforce classic?
A. Edit note
B. Delete note.
C. Create note.
D. View note.

8. when an answer is posted in chatter questions. what two personas can select the best answer for a question? choose 2 answers
A. Members of the group or community where the question was posted.
B. Moderator.
C. Subject matter experts
D. Person who asked the question

9. which two permissions need to be assigned for a user to view and edit information on the Health check page in setup? choose 2 answers
A. View Setup and Configuration
B. Customize Application
C. Modify All Data
D. View all Data

10. what is true about how process builder executes actions?
A. Processes can execute actions using undefined criteria.
B. Processes can execute actions on more than one criteria.
C. Processes can execute actions based on only one criteria.
D. Processes can execute actions when the action group contains scheduled actions

AWS Solution Architect -Professional

1.You currently operate a web application in the AWS US-East region. The application runs on an auto- scaled layer of EC2 instances and an RDS Multi-AZ database. Your IT security compliance officer has tasked you to develop a reliable and durable logging solution to track changes made to your EC2, IAM, and RDS resources. The solution must ensure the integrity and confidentiality of your log data. Which of these solutions would you recommend?

A. Create a new CloudTrail trail with one new S3 bucket to store the logs. Configure SNS to send log file delivery notifications to your management system. Use IAM roles and S3 bucket policies on the S3 bucket that stores your logs.

B. Create a new CloudTrail trail with an existing S3 bucket to store the logs and with the global services option selected. Use S3 ACLs and Multi Factor Authentication (MFA) Delete on the S3 bucket that stores your logs.

C. Create a new CloudTrail trail with one new S3 bucket to store the logs and with the global services option selected. Use IAM roles, S3 bucket policies, and Multi Factor Authentication (MFA) Delete on the S3 bucket that stores your logs.

D. Create three new CloudTrail trails with three new S3 buckets to store the logs: one for the AWS Management Console, one for AWS SDKs, and one for command line tools. Use 1AM roles and S3 bucket policies on the S3 buckets that store your logs.

2.You have an application running on an EC2 instance which will allow users to download files from a private S3 bucket using a pre-signed URL. Before generating the URL, the application should verify the existence of the file in S3. How should the application use AWS credentials to access the S3 bucket securely?

A. Use the AWS account access keys; the application retrieves the credentials from the source code of the application.

B. Create an IAM role for EC2 that allows list access to objects In the S3 bucket; launch the Instance with the role, and retrieve the role's credentials from the EC2 instance metadata.

C. Create an IAM user for the application with permissions that allow list access to the S3 bucket; the application retrieves the 1AM user credentials from a temporary directory with permissions that allow read access only to the Application user.

D. Create an IAM user for the application with permissions that allow list access to the S3 bucket; launch the instance as the IAM user, and retrieve the IAM user's credentials from the EC2 instance user data.

3.A customer has a 10 GB AWS Direct Connect connection to an AWS region where they have a web application hosted on Amazon Elastic Computer Cloud (EC2). The application has dependencies on an on-premises mainframe database that uses a BASE (Baste Available, Soft state, Eventual consistency) rather than an ACID (Atomicity, Consistency, Isolation, Durability) consistency model. The application is exhibiting undesirable behavior because the database is not able to handle the volume of writes. How can you reduce the load on your on-premises database resources in the most cost-effective way?

A. Provision an RDS read-replica database on AWS to handle the writes and synchronize the two databases using Data Pipeline.

B. Modify the application to use DynamoDB to feed an EMR cluster which uses a map function to write to the on-premises database.

C. Modify the application to write to an Amazon SQS queue and develop a worker process to flush the queue to the on-premises database.

D. Use an Amazon Elastic Map Reduce (EMR) S3DistCp as a synchronization mechanism between the on- premises database and a Hadoop cluster on AWS.

4.Your company plans to host a large donation website on Amazon Web Services (AWS). You anticipate a large and undetermined amount of traffic that will create many database writes. To be certain that you do not drop any writes to a database hosted on AWS, which service should you use?

A. Amazon Simple Queue Service (SQS) for capturing the writes and draining the queue to write to the database.

B. Amazon DynamoDB with provisioned write throughput up to the anticipated peak write throughput.

C. Amazon ElastiCache to store the writes until the writes are committed to the database.

D. Amazon RDS with provisioned IOPS up to the anticipated peak write throughput.

AWS Solution Architect -Associate

1. You have a video transcoding application running on Amazon EC2. Each instance polls a queue to find out which video should be transcoded, and then runs a transcoding process.If this process is interrupted, the video will be transcoded by another instance based on the queuing system. You have a large backlog of videos which need to be transcoded and would like to reduce this backlog by adding more instances. You will need these instancesonly until the backlog is reduced. Which type of Amazon EC2 instances should you use to reduce the backlog in the most cost efficient way?

A. Reserved instances

B. Spot instances

C. Dedicated instances

D. On-demand instances

2. You have an application running on an Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud instance, that

uploads 5 GB video objects to Amazon Simple Storage Service (S3). Video uploads are

taking longer than expected, resulting in poor application performance. Which method will help improve performance of your application?

A. Enable enhanced networking

B. Use Amazon S3 multipart upload

C. Leveraging Amazon CloudFront, use the HTTP POST method to reduce latency.

D. Use Amazon Elastic Block Store Provisioned IOPs and use an Amazon EBS-optimized instance

3. When an EC2 instance that is backed by an S3-based AMI is terminated, what happens to the data on the root volume?

A. Data is automatically saved as an EBS snapshot.

B. Data is automatically saved as an EBS volume.

C. Data is unavailable until the instance is restarted.

D. Data is automatically deleted.

4. You run an ad-supported photo sharing website using S3 to serve photos to visitors of your site. At some point you find out that other sites have been linking to the photos on your site, causing loss to your business. What is an effective method to mitigate this?

A. Remove public read access and use signed URLs with expiry dates.

B. Use CloudFront distributions for static content.

C. Block the IPs of the offending websites in Security Groups.

D. Store photos on an EBS volume of the web server.

5. Which of the following are true regarding encrypted Amazon Elastic Block Store (EBS) volumes? Choose 2 answers

A. Supported on all Amazon EBS volume types

B. Snapshots are automatically encrypted

C. Available to all instance types

D. Existing volumes can be encrypted

E. shared volumes can be encrypted